Log Plans Block 4 Part 1 26005 Practice Test

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• RLD stands for Ready to Load Date. What does it signify in UTC planning?
• How is a UTC identified?
• Which three capabilities must a UTC assessment determine?
• The Unit Manning Document (UMD) is used to...
• Who is the single point of contact for all UTC actions within a major command for field command?
• What does RDD stand for?
• What is the purpose of JET?
• What document prescribes and explains how the United States Air Force and United States Space Force will participate in Department of Defense Global Force Management Processes?
• What is the official comprehensive data source for identifying all Air Force UTCs?
• ____ is a composition of multiple UTCs that represent an operational capability.
• Which of the following is one of the AETF Force Modules?
• How is 'Assigned' defined in force management?
• The ____ is the time-phased force data, non-unit related cargo and personnel data, and movement data for the operation plan or operation order.
• What provides a vehicle to exchange ideas, opinions, and directives in crisis or exercise?
• What are the 4 phases in the AFFORGEN cycle?
• ____ is the DoD directed single, integrated joint conventional command and control system for conventional operation planning and execution?
• Which platform is described as a vehicle to exchange ideas and directives within a field of interest such as crisis?
• Which statement best describes Reporting Instructions?
• TUCHA stands for what?
• The MEFPAK operates within which software suite?
• What is the concept that provides tailored capabilities of expeditionary, mobility, and space forces in a provisional organizational construct to preserve AF unity of command and unity of effort?
• Which publication would you consult to understand the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES) data development and deployment execution details?
• Which Joint Force Provider is responsible for Mobility Forces?
• Which of the following is NOT a part of an OPLAN?
• Log Planners monitor the ___ and applicable systems for changes that may occur or be posted in applicable Newsgroups or email org boxes.
• What will be presented to the Joint Force under the AETF construct and will represent the primary pool of operational capabilities the Air Force provides for the nation's defense?
• What is the Air Force force readiness and force generation mechanism called?
• Which components are included among units that must regularly assess UTCs?
• ____ provide global recommended sourcing solutions and feasibility risk analyses defined by joint and AF guidance?
• The cycle that includes Reset, Prepare, Certify, and Available is known as what model?
• Which document describes the process that aligns force assignment, allocation, and apportionment methodologies in support of the National Defense Strategy (NDS) and joint force availability requirements?
• Which group is composed primarily of units or capabilities that operate independently and include unique, highly specific combat, combat support or combat service support capabilities?
• A Force Element is a composition of multiple UTCs that represent an operational capability. What does UTC stand for?
• What is used to locate geographic locations when building ULN routing?
• Which office coordinates with the Munitions Accountable Systems Officer to determine ammunition authorizations using AFMAN 21-201?
• Define a right-sized UTC.
• Which statement correctly lists the 4 Joint Force Providers (JFP) and their responsibilities?
• Who uses the MSDC and applicable allowance standards to determine weapons authorizations IAW AFI 23-201?
• What identifies the installation's most stringent requirement(s) for all phases of operations?
• Who is the final approval authority for Condition #1 and #2 reclama requests submitted by their units?
• UTCs that build upon each other provide ____ at a given location.
• Who will translate PECs into Unit Manning Document (UMD) manpower authorizations?
• UTCs are built to accommodate ___ days of sustained capability before having to be augmented with new supplies or personnel.
• In an OPLAN, which component contains the core concept and planning assumptions?
• What does SMI stand for?
• An Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) can be tailored in what two aspects as appropriate for the mission?
• Which term refers to a group-based communication channel used for crisis-related discussions?
• What does DPDRT stand for?
• The UTC assessment can be broken down by which factor to help wing leadership identify issues with a unit not able to utilize a UTC?
• Which document integrates guidance from multiple AF instructions to define deployment roles, responsibilities, processes, procedures, infrastructure, and resources to deploy forces?
• Which letters are omitted in UTC identifiers to avoid confusion with numbers?
• Three main dissemination methods for UTA and TPFDD products?
• In Transit Visibility (ITV) is the ability to track the identity, status, and location of which items?
• What is the difference between a Pilot Unit and a Non-Pilot Unit?
• The MDG ensures UDMs have access to ____ so they can ensure their members are medical cleared prior to final out-processing and deployment.
• A ___ is the lack of force, equipment, personnel, material, or capability reflected as the difference between the resources identified as a plan requirement or service asset and those apportioned to a combatant commander.
• What phase of the AFFORGEN cycle focuses on training towards peak readiness?
• Which tool puts personal accountability for deployment readiness in the hands of the deploying member?
• Which tool is used to edit, modify, and update the JOPES database?
• Standard UTCs are what 3 things?
• Which phrase is used to describe one of the AETF Force Modules?
• What provides the equipment-planning data for use by Air Force units during mobility planning?
• Which of the following is NOT a system that resides in ITV?
• What does WCS stand for in planning and operations context?
• POD corresponds to which term in the mapping exercise?
• Which acronym is used for processing shortfalls and reclama?
• What is the purpose of RQT?
• What are the three types of forces that will support a CCDR's taskings?
• Which file contains unit readiness data including personnel and equipment?
• The Installation Deployment Plan is abbreviated as IDP.
• The IPR trains and works with UDMs to complete required out-processing actions as well as generating ____ for deploying members.
• Newsgroups are used for what kind of communications?
• Which statement correctly lists all six AETF Force Modules?
• MSDC stands for what?
• What phase of the AFFORGEN cycle has a unit available for contingency or residual force deployment?
• Who has the authority to approve the IDP?
• Who will ensure Airmen are postured against one of the four vulnerability windows based on their unit's assignment to a Force Element?
• What are the three parts of an OPLAN?
• Which JFP serves as the lead for Space Forces?
• What phase of the AFFORGEN cycle focuses on certification events to sustain peak readiness levels?
• What are the three points the Log Plans office needs to consider when developing a plan to exercise the WCS?
• How often is the IDP reviewed?
• Developing an MFE should consider the difference between 24-hour availability and 24-hour coverage. Which statement correctly defines the two concepts?
• Which tool is specifically named to process reclama and shortfalls?
• How many months are each AFFORGEN phase within a 24-month cycle?
• What are the two types of TPFDDs? Describe each.
• What are the three types of Individual Protective Equipment bags?
• What does PDPT stand for?
• In this context, PEC stands for?
• What AF system interfaces with JOPES?
• UTC Assessors are appointed by which authority?
• In the most basic sense, the TPFDD tells planners what?
• Which office has the overall responsibility to analyze planning documents to ensure the IDP addresses the installation's full range of military operations?
• Which file contains the geographic routing points used by ULNs?
• Which codes display the DoD's forces and infrastructure framework and their administrative relationship with their support infrastructure?
• What are the 3 main FPs for the Air Force?
• By which date must UTC assessments be completed each month?
• What will provide personnel strength and short ton information?
• Which tool is used to identify deployers that did not meet deployment requirements?
• Which acronym corresponds to a tool used for deployment readiness planning?
• How often will the IDO formally document the installation's WCS and provide a briefing to key senior leadership?
• Which office is responsible for determining ammunition authorizations for deploying personnel?
• Which type of TPFDD depicts an Air Force capability not directly associated with a specific requirement?
• What is the primary source document for day-to-day operations within the Plans and Integration office, Deployment Planning and Execution section?
• In deployment planning, what document tracks deployment data by time and location?
• In a match-the-terms set, Origin corresponds to which term?
• Which document captures time-phased force data, non-unit related cargo and personnel data, and movement data for a deployment?
• Which tool flags discrepancies in deployment processing for specific personnel?
• In crisis management, which service is used to exchange directives among participants?
• Within AFFORGEN, each phase is __ months within a __ month cycle.
• The LRS/Plans and Integration office, in coordination with the ______, Uses AFMAN 21-201 to determine the ammunition authorizations for deploying personnel.
• Which item is NOT one of the six AETF Force Modules?
• What are the three parts of a UTC?
• What does RATE stand for when assessing a plan?
• A UTC can consist of which?
• Which UTC component describes mission capabilities expected of a UTC?
• What is any plan for the conduct of military operations prepared in response to actual and potential contingencies?
• What office provides installation-wide personnel deployment planning and execution support and belongs to FSS?
• What is the phase in AFFORGEN when units are prepared to deploy and achieve peak readiness?
• Which document outlines how the Air Force supports combatant commanders using a combination of assigned and deployable forces, pre-positioned materiel, commercial support, and host nation support?
• It is crucial to monitor the redeployment TPFDDs to properly capture what?
• What role does IDRC play in disseminating UTA/TPFDD products?
• What term describes the process to request duly constituted authority to reconsider its decision or its proposed action?
• Standard UTCs are used for deployment planning data that will be used to deploy personnel and cargo.
• Commanders and the _____ continue to evaluate the situation for any changes that would require modifications to a plan.
• The system used to process shortfalls and reclama is known as what?
• What phase of the AFFORGEN cycle accounts for reintegration and reconstitution?
• Which publication provides deployment planning and execution guidance within the Air Force?
• Which UTC component identifies the minimum manpower requirements needed to meet a UTC MISCAP?
• In the FYDP structure, resource allocations are described as which, and how resources are utilized are described using which codes?
• Which of the following is NOT a UTC part?
• The DCAPES software suite resides in which system?
• What document contains dimensional and weight data for large pieces of equipment and is used when building non-standard UTCs?
• Which document governs Unit Type Code management across the Air Force?
• Which of the following is a system that resides in ITV?
• What are the two conditions that result in a shortfall?
• Which AFFORGEN phase has a unit available for contingency deployment?
• LOGMOD contains cargo levels of detail. How many levels are there, and which levels are most commonly utilized by Log Planners?
• Of all the forces that fall under the SECAF, which Major Command has been appointed by Headquarters Air Force to lead SECAF/Force Provider actions?
• Typically, the UTC approver is the respective unit commander, with two senior leaders within the unit acting as alternates.
• The ____ identifies the minimum manpower requirements needed to meet a UTC MISCAP statement.
• Which tool would you use to address shortfalls in deployment processes?
• What are the two types of UTCs? Define them.
• Which document outlines planning and execution milestones and details movement control procedures and lift allocations to the commander's components, supporting commanders, and other members of the joint planning and execution committee (JPEC)?
• A ___ UTC has been registered in the MEFPAK and TUCHA file and has complete movement characteristics in both repositories.
• Which document would provide the UTC information for planning alignment?
• What are the most common levels utilized as Log Planners in LOGMOD?
• What three factors must be considered when developing a WCS brief?
• Pilot Unit UTCs are required to be reviewed _____, per AF guidance.
• Which Joint Force Provider is responsible for Cyberspace Forces?
• Which offices must an installation contact to determine which OPLAN it supports?
• MISCAP stands for what?
• Which of the following is a shortfall condition?
• The Plans and Integration office will provide the installation's MSDC to which sections for determining IPE authorizations, and by what deadline?
• Define an 'associate' UTC.
• Which office coordinates with the Munitions Accountable Systems Officer to determine ammunition authorizations using AFMAN 21-201?
• What is the purpose of the Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) Construct?
• Who coordinates the review process with the appointed Pilot Unit within their scope of responsibility?
• If a deployer fails to meet deployment requirements, which system would capture this discrepancy?
• Which publication is titled 'Global Force Management (GFM) Allocation Policies and Procedures'?
• What are established for every deployed location, port of embarkation and debarkation, exercise and operation?
• The ___ is used to view all information pertaining to an Air Force standard UTC.
• What is the AF's model to ensure combat readiness for the total force to support global contingencies?
• What are the two types of non-standard UTCs?
• Which statement best describes the Pilot Unit's role in UTC planning?
• What does CNA stand for in the context of shortfalls?
• To ensure that UMD authorizations associated with a UTC are postured correctly in the UTA listing, which three documents are required?
• MEFPAK enables updates to what kind of files?
• Define a Z99 UTC.
• Which publication describes how the Air Force and Space Force participate in Global Force Management processes?
• Who is responsible for training UDMs and unit leadership on UTA/UTC assessment comparisons?
• Which tool would you use to track discrepancies in deployment processing?
• Destination maps to which term in the mapping exercise?
• What uniquely identifies standard force capabilities in MEFPAK?
• Within the Logistics Readiness Squadron, which function serves as the IDO's primary focal point for installation/wing mobility cargo and passenger deployment support operations?
• The ____ is a short paragraph/statement describing the mission capabilities that planners and functional experts expect of a UTC.
• Non-standard UTCs are used for planning purposes but will not be identified as a deployment requirement on the TPFDD.
• Which document provides guidance and procedures on the development, maintenance, and reporting of UTCs throughout the Department of the Air Force (DAF)?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the five primary systems that make up the IDS?